Tony N said:
So you, by way of inference, hang yourself since you believe that the genealogical evidence was in the Temple Records.
Hardly. I was pointing out the inconsistency in your own argument: YOU think there's some magical value in the Temple records, not I. You claimed the Jews didn't refute the lineages of jesus, so, according to you, they must be true. Since those lineages date from AFTER the destruction of the Temple, there would be no way to confirm or refute the n.t. lineages as according to your own standards of evidence; that is, by the Temple records.
To your way of thinking, a man has no way of proving his lineage without the Temple records, yet you claim they could, because they allegedly did so after the Temple was destroyed.
I have consistently maintained that a man knows his own lineage, and can back his claim up with corroboration from his elders and contemporaries, even those not of his own family. We probably don't need the Temple records to know who is descended from King David.
Since the temple and genealogical records kept by the priests were still intact and Matthew and Luke had access to those LEGAL documents kept by those priests, we must assume one of two things: The priests were all a bunch of idiots that couldn't keep a simple genealogy or they took great pains to make sure each genealogy was correct and that therefore the genealogy of Mary to David and Joseph to David are correct.
There's a third option, at least: The whole assumption is made up by you, and never took place at all.
Matthew does not predate 70 c.e. (See below). Therefore, the Temple records were (according to christians), already destroyed.
Mark 7:2: (KJV) "And when they saw some of his disciples eat bread with defiled, that is to say, with unwashen, hands, they found fault. 3 For the Pharisees, and all the Jews, except they wash their hands oft, eat not, holding the tradition of the elders,"
The author of Mark is giving away the date of composition here (after 70 CE).
According to Rabbinic literature, prior to the destruction of the 1st Temple it was decreed that only Priests were required to wash before they ate. Not until after the destruction of the 2nd Temple did Rabbinic Law apply to for all Jews to wash their hands before meals. See "Rambam Yad hachazake Trumos ch 11 & 12."
Matthew, being based upon "Mark," "Matthew" copied Mark's error, so that means Mark must also be from days after the destruction of Jerusalem.
Matthew Mark and Luke were written before 70 A.D. when Jerusalem was destroyed along with the temple. How do I know? The internal evidence proves it.
You must have missed Mark 7:2: before you wrote the tidbit above. Oh well. Nobody's perfect.
Matthew, Mark and Luke all make pains to show that Jesus foretold the destruction of Jerusalem. Yet none of them write that Jesus' prophecy was fulfilled. Therefore they were penned prior to that event.
There's no reason to accept your claim that the gospels were written before the destruction of the Temple due to the texts of the gospels themselves, and so the 'prophecies' of the destruction of the Temple lose some of their impressiveness, coming after the fact as they do.
As far as the genealogies are concerned, they are both right on the mark.
Nope, sorry. They contain a few glaring errors, and so their reliability must be questioned.
njc wrote to disprove Christ as Messiah:
3. Be married and have children during his term (e.g., Ezek 46:16-17)
Tony's reply:
Not talking about Christ, who is King of the Jews.
"Christ" is a Greek word that, according to the way it is used in the n.t. means,
"messiah," a definition the alleged meassiah rejected (Mark 12:35,);
"a king," which Jc was not;
"the son of David," perversely, a definition that jesus rejected;
"a miracle worker - fortune teller," which Jc may have been, but in the Tanakh there is no connection between that definition and the messiah;
"savior," but in the Tanakh there is no association with the messiah and a savior, since G-d is the Savior, and Jc wasn't G-d;
"a sufferer," apparently a surrogate sufferer;
"eternal," but that's based on a false reading of the Hebrew Holy Scriptures.
"Messiah" is the Anglicized version of a Hebrew word meaning "anointed." One was anointed with the Holy Oil of Anointing for one of three offices: prophet, priest, and/or King.
The king, then would be "messiah."
Since jesus was never anointed with the Holy Oil of Anointing, he was not the messiah.
And since his lineage is in doubt (if for no other reason than because there are TWO of them provided in the n.t., and the contradict each other), then there's no reason to assume jesus was entitled to the term, "king of the Jews."
Besides the lineages, the dogma of the christians teaches that Joseph was not the father of jesus, but jesus was in stead the 'son of god,' and since God is not descended from David, then jesus, the so-called 'son of god' was also not descended from David.
So there's no reason to accept the claim that jesus was "king of the Jews."
Finally, jesus may have claim to the title "christ," but he was NOT the messiah.
njc continues:
1. Arrival of Elijah the Prophet (e.g., Mal 3:23-24 [4:5-6 in Christian Bibles])
Tony's reply:
Elijah the Prophet was not to be the Messiah but the forerunner to the Messiah which was John the Baptist.
John the Baptist flatly denied he was the forerunner OR Elijah. Therefore, your claim is at variance with the "best evidence." Who should we believe, the new testament, or what you claim the new testament says or means?
Since John the Baptist is the ONLY person offered as the returned "Elijah" or the messiah's forerunner, but wasn't Elijah; and since nobody else is claimed to have been Elijah, then Elijah has not come, and that means the messiah has not come.
Mal 3:1 "Behold Me sending My messenger, and he surfaces the way before Me."
The expression, "My messenger," is given as "Malachai," which is the name of the author of the book you cited. Quite possibly, Malachai was talking of himself. He paved the road by giving us a forerunner to look for before the coming of the messiah himself.
Note also that this forerunner's task was to mend families, whereas jesus said that his task was to divide families!
Since God wants families mended, but jesus wanted families divided, we can tell right away that jesus was not doing God's Will.
Therefore, jesus was not the messiah, but an anti-messiah. (Here, 'ant-' can mean both "against" and "before.")
njc continues:
2. Building the Third Temple in Jerusalem (e.g., Ezek 37:26-28, [also Ezekiel Chapters 40-48]; Is 33:20)
Tony's reply:
Does it state that the Messiah must rebuild the temple?
Yes, it does.
njc wrote:
7. Resurrection of the dead (e.g., Is 26:19; Dan 12:2; Ezek 37:12-13)
Tony's reply:
Mat 27:52 and the tombs were opened. And many bodies of the reposing saints were roused,
That is myth. No historian of the day ever recounted the citizens of ANY city (much less a specific city, say Jerusalem, for example), experiencing the opening of hundreds or even thousands of graves and the dead streaming therefrom to walk the Earth again. Who were these resurrected dead? What are their names? Did they retuurn to life bodily, or simply as shades or ghosts? Did they return to their wives and husbands, some of whom didn't need to crawl out of the tomb? Did they need to eat? If so, did they return to their former jobs? Did they stay resurrected? Are they still walking the Earth today? What are their addresses? Did the arise just to die again? Did they ascend into heaven, presumably before jesus did? If so, what path did jesus blaze?
This incredible event (the alleged mass resurrection), which if it HAD happened, would have made the headlines all over the civilized world, but is passed off with but one line in a single gospel (none of the others seem to have remembered it happening, or they also would have mentioned it), and the 'resurrected' simply vanish like the morning mist!
It's only reasonable to suspect it is mere myth.
Also, where does it state that ALL of the things you enumerate MUST come to pass all at the same time for one to be Messiah?
Maimonides wrote about it. He cited Scripture and gave good reason for the belief. That's good enough.
"If he (the one assumed to be messiah) did not succeed to this degree or he was killed, he surely is not [the redeemer] promised by the Torah. [Rather,] he should be considered as all the other proper and legitimate kings of the Davidic dynasty who died. *&$ G-d only caused him to arise in order to test the multitude. As it is written [Daniel 11:35], "Some of the wise men will stumble, to purge, to refine, and to clarify, until the appointed time, for it is yet to come."
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*&$ The key here is, "to this degree" which level of performance jesus did not even approach, besides the fact that his Davidic descent is in serious doubt.