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FUSSCCJ

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Journalist-source Privilege?
« on: July 11, 2005, 08:45:29 PM »

Recently the Supreme Court rejected the appeal of several journalists who are being held in contempt for refusing to reveal confidential sources to a Grand Jury.  The journalists claim that the first amendment
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The Sasquatch

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« Reply #1 on: July 12, 2005, 09:30:25 PM »

Fuss:

Neither doctors nor lawyers have absolute privilege, yet their clients still regularly supply them with the information needed to do their jobs, including information that could, if made public, cause the clients harm in ways similar to those mentioned above.
The difference here is that, in the case of doctors and lawyers, clients come to the professional in seek of services for some sort of affliction or need. In the case of journalists, the professional has the need anad seeks out individuals to supply them with information. Supply and demand is switched. I'm not saying I disagree with your conclusion. I'm just pointing out that your example here doesn't really do what you think it does.

One other point to consider, in support of your claim, is that journalists are not nearly as important as the used to be. They are no longer central to the disemination of information. Oftentimes, political blogs will uncover scandals and bits of important facts well in advance of the so-called seasoned professionals. And none of the journalistic polls done prior to the 2004 Presidential Election did nearly as well as several sports betting services; some of which predicted the outcomes in each of the 50 states (even here in Ohio, the land of bad craziness!).

But hey...the evening news sure can be entertaining sometimes!
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FUSSCCJ

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Journalist-source Privilege?
« Reply #2 on: July 13, 2005, 04:04:19 PM »

I think the point was that the person looking for protection (confidentiality) is willing to give out information that makes them vunerable in both cases (doctor and lawyer) without absolute protection.  Why would a source (who do sometimes seek reporters, such as in the case of Deep Throat) need greater protection that patients or legal clients for the press to serve the public?

That's what that point was leading to.  Of course I'm giving journalists the benefit of the doubt and assuming that they do play a significant role in creating an informed public.  If it really got down to it I think almost all TV journalism would be out except for C-SPAN, Jim Leher, and a few others.
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The Sasquatch

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« Reply #3 on: July 13, 2005, 09:35:17 PM »

Why would a source (who do sometimes seek reporters, such as in the case of Deep Throat) need greater protection that patients or legal clients for the press to serve the public?
I think there are two possible explanations. One is the scope. With regard to medical information, everybody has personal information they share with their doctor throughout the course of their lives. Sure, it might be embarassing to have to tell your doctor you have Herpes (right, SJ!), but in the long run it isn't really going to affect anybody but you and maybe your family. You arent' going to bring down a company or a President with this information, are you? Conversely, the type of information relevant to case at hand (with respect to Karl Rove and the CIA agent), this type of information affects many people and is significantly more rare. There have been several cases (such as Watergate) which never would have seen the light of day if it weren't for anonymous sources.
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FUSSCCJ

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« Reply #4 on: July 14, 2005, 07:39:09 PM »

But you select the weaker of the two examples (medicine).  The conversations protected by attorney-client privilege could probably cause at least ten times as much damage to others as those between journalists and confidential sources.  I'm not saying that therefore those conversations should have no protection, just that this deonstrates why it need not to be absolute.
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Journalist-source Privilege?
« Reply #5 on: July 15, 2005, 09:43:40 AM »

One thing I don
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The Sasquatch

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« Reply #6 on: July 17, 2005, 01:06:46 AM »

The conversations protected by attorney-client privilege could probably cause at least ten times as much damage to others as those between journalists and confidential sources.
What's your basis for this opinion?
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FUSSCCJ

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« Reply #7 on: July 17, 2005, 06:12:17 PM »

The sheer volume of them.  It doesn't hurt that lots of crimes are committed in the US either.
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The Sasquatch

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« Reply #8 on: July 17, 2005, 06:21:21 PM »

So, in other words, you're speculating.
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FUSSCCJ

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« Reply #9 on: July 17, 2005, 06:53:30 PM »

Yep, that's why I said "...could probably cause..."

(is this getting us anywhere?)
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cimics

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Journalist-source Privilege?
« Reply #10 on: July 18, 2005, 08:04:54 PM »

Violating the attorney-client privilege is serious because, among other things, it could result in the disclosure of incriminating information that would cause someone to go to jail.  Or it might result in disclosing trial strategy that might cost someone a multimillion dollar lawsuit.  Or it would cause the lawyer-client relationship to completely break down, with clients unwilling to tell all to their attorneys and as a result, the attorneys unable to give their clients good legal advice, and that in turn could effect the clients liberty or financial interests.  And that's in addition to the privacy interests that one would recognize in a medical context (which would also be applicable).

That said, the crime/fraud exception only applies when the lawyers services are sought or used to perpetrate the crime or fraud.  See for example http://www.courts.state.tx.us/publicinfo/TRE/tre-98.htm#RULE503

There is also a somewhat broader exception to the ethical rules where a lawyer MAY reveal information that is necessary to prevent a FUTURE crime or fraud or MUST reveal to prevent a crime or fraud with very serious consequences (death or serious bodily injury).  http://www.txethics.org/reference_rules.asp?view=conduct&num=1.05
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Hiersekorn

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« Reply #11 on: July 23, 2005, 09:26:42 AM »

You guys would do a law school proud.  Much of the discussion here revolves around the actual policy considerations regarding privileges.

However, it might help if I clarified a few things.  For one, there is is only one privilege of a constitutional nature, and that's privilege against self-incrimination.  All other privileges are rules of evidence.  That is, they determine what can or cannot be used in a trial.

Another very important consideration is who actually holds a given privilege.  You really can't fully analyze the issue without understanding this concept.  See, only one person holds the privilege.  When I communicate with my pastor, the "priest-penitent" privilege belongs to me, not the pastor.  That means my pastor doesn't have the power to waive the privilege on my behalf.  That's why a pastor or priest cannot be forced to reveal information.

On the other hand, I can waive the privilege and allow my pastor to reveal information.

The easiest way to describe the distinction is the spousal privilege, because there are actually two spousal privileges.  There is a spousal testimony privilege and a spousal communication privilege.

Imagine a bride and groom at their wedding.  The groom leans over before the vows and tells his bride, "I killed Tony."  Assuming she goes through with the ceremony,  (Maybe she hated Tony), she couldn't be compelled to testify against her husband against HER will, because SHE holds the privilege not to testify.  She could freely take the stand if she wanted to, but the state couldn't force her to.

On the other hand, if the groom waited until after the ceremony and they were married when he told her about killing Tony, then she couldn't testify against her husband at all -- even if she later divorced him, because HE holds the privilege as it relates to spousal communications.

I hope that made sense.  The reason it's important is that journalists are the ones holding the reporter's privilege.  They don't need the permission of their source.  (Arguably, there is a separate privilege in whistleblower cases, but that's another issue.)  

So, attorney-client privilege doesn't make a fair analogy, because the client holds the privilege.  When, as here, the reporter holds the privilege and, as a result, the right to waive that privilege, there just isn't a compelling reason to prevent forced disclosure to determine if a crime has been committed.
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David Hiersekorn

cimics

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Journalist-source Privilege?
« Reply #12 on: July 23, 2005, 01:55:08 PM »

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However, it might help if I clarified a few things. For one, there is is only one privilege of a constitutional nature, and that's privilege against self-incrimination. All other privileges are rules of evidence. That is, they determine what can or cannot be used in a trial.


In criminal cases the attorney-client relationship has constitutional significance, and therefore the attorney-client privilege is at least to some degree constitutional in that context.  We don't usually delve into this  constitutional aspect as attorney-client privilege situations are generally resolved under privilege as found in the rules of evidence.

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The reason it's important is that journalists are the ones holding the reporter's privilege. They don't need the permission of their source. (Arguably, there is a separate privilege in whistleblower cases, but that's another issue.) So, attorney-client privilege doesn't make a fair analogy, because the client holds the privilege. When, as here, the reporter holds the privilege and, as a result, the right to waive that privilege, there just isn't a compelling reason to prevent forced disclosure to determine if a crime has been committed.


Actually that depends on how one would characterize the "reporter's" privilege.  In theory, one could ground it on the source's freedom of speech or perhaps expand the notion of freedom of the press to encompass the source's right to communicate with the press in a confidential fashion.  Then it would be a privilege held by the source.  Under those circumstances, one could then perhaps argue that the journalist cannot reveal the source (assuming he's promised confidentiality, establishing the confidential relationship) without the source's consent.  Obviously a journalist would have no problem revealing a source who does not wish or no longer wishes to remain confidential.   Of course, the question might arise whether such a restriction on the reporter would itself be an impermissible infringement on the press, but that might be handily addressed by the idea that the privilege doesn't exist unless the reporter agrees, and he cannot complain about what he agreed to.

Another issue is the specialness of the First Amendment with regard to how courts analyze issues.  Even if the privilege were the reporter's, the argument might be that special treatment is justified to protect robust news reporting.  Of course, then the attorney client privilege would not a particularly good analogy, since, even when it is constitutionally based, it is not based on the First Amendment.

Obviously, the law does not currently recognize a reporter's privilege under either of these scenarios and I am not necessarily saying it should -- just that, if it did, one of the above would likely provide the theoretical grounding for it.
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Hiersekorn

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« Reply #13 on: July 23, 2005, 03:40:56 PM »

Quote from: cimics

In criminal cases the attorney-client relationship has constitutional significance, and therefore the attorney-client privilege is at least to some degree constitutional in that context.  We don't usually delve into this  constitutional aspect as attorney-client privilege situations are generally resolved under privilege as found in the rules of evidence.

Yes and no.  Remember that the privilege belongs to the client in attorney-client privilege.  Whether the attorney can be forced to reveal information is a function of whether the client can be forced to waive the privilege.  The Fifth Amendment would protect the client's right NOT to waive the privilege.

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Actually that depends on how one would characterize the "reporter's" privilege.  In theory, one could ground it on the source's freedom of speech or perhaps expand the notion of freedom of the press to encompass the source's right to communicate with the press in a confidential fashion.  Then it would be a privilege held by the source.

Perhaps, but there would be no basis for establishing a right to confidential communications with the press.  There is no constitutional right to private speech -- unless that private speech is wrapped up in some other constitutional right, such as freedom of religion.  Further, each of the recognized privileges is grounded in the concept of self-communication.  In other words, each of the privileges stem from communications that are considered necessary for the person doing the communication.  (i.e. confession, getting legal help, getting assistance with taxes, marital communications, etc.)

There is no recognized need to engage in gossip, even if that gossip is intended to be glorified in newsprint later.

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Under those circumstances, one could then perhaps argue that the journalist cannot reveal the source (assuming he's promised confidentiality, establishing the confidential relationship) without the source's consent.  ...

I would agree that a reporter (or anyone for that matter) can promise to keep a secret, and that they could not be compelled to divulge the secret -- unless, of course, it were relevant to a grand jury investigation.

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Another issue is the specialness of the First Amendment with regard to how courts analyze issues.  Even if the privilege were the reporter's, the argument might be that special treatment is justified to protect robust news reporting.  Of course, then the attorney client privilege would not a particularly good analogy, since, even when it is constitutionally based, it is not based on the First Amendment.

Leaving aside the fact that there is no "special" rule for the First Amendment, you are essentially making a public policy argument.  You are saying, in effect, that it would be "good" for society if reporters could keep the identity of a witness to a crime secret just so the public can find out what happened.  

True, there is a public right to know what happened, but there is also a greater public right to prosecute wrongdoers.  That is a fundamental public policy as well.  And given the fact that we have public trials in this country, there is no argument that the only way the information gets out is by doing it in the press.  So, protecting the reporter's privilege as you've suggested would not serve any purpose not served elsewhere, and it would destroy one of the fundamental building blocks of a civil society -- the right to prosecute wrongdoers.

I simply must disagree.
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David Hiersekorn

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Journalist-source Privilege?
« Reply #14 on: July 23, 2005, 04:37:47 PM »

Quote
In criminal cases the attorney-client relationship has constitutional significance, and therefore the attorney-client privilege is at least to some degree constitutional in that context. We don't usually delve into this constitutional aspect as attorney-client privilege situations are generally resolved under privilege as found in the rules of evidence.

Yes and no. Remember that the privilege belongs to the client in attorney-client privilege.


Of course.

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Whether the attorney can be forced to reveal information is a function of whether the client can be forced to waive the privilege. The Fifth Amendment would protect the client's right NOT to waive the privilege.


Because the attorney is essentially an extension of the client.  But what makes the attorney an extension of the client is grounded in the Sixth and not merely the Fifth Amendment.  For example, if an accused talked to his brother (who was not his attorney), his desire to keep the communication confidential would not avail him.  Or, if in the unlikely event that a State decided to abolish the marital communication privilege, then such communication would not be protected by the constitutional right against self incrimination.    

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Actually that depends on how one would characterize the "reporter's" privilege. In theory, one could ground it on the source's freedom of speech or perhaps expand the notion of freedom of the press to encompass the source's right to communicate with the press in a confidential fashion. Then it would be a privilege held by the source.

Perhaps, but there would be no basis for establishing a right to confidential communications with the press....


Well, that's the tricky part, isn't it?  :)

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Leaving aside the fact that there is no "special" rule for the First Amendment, you are essentially making a public policy argument. You are saying, in effect, that it would be "good" for society if reporters could keep the identity of a witness to a crime secret just so the public can find out what happened.


There are at least two special rules for the First Amendment that I can think of off the top of my head: 1) overbreadth, and 2) de novo review of the facts.   My point was that some special rules do apply (at least in the speech/press context) that do not apply to other types of constitutional violations.   First Amendment cases are often concerned with preventing a "chilling effect" which is part of the underlying rationale for these special rules and could conceivably be part of a rationale for a reporter's privilege  even though such a privilege would be different from other privileges.  I'm not saying the rationale ultimately works, just that an argument can at least be made.

Quote
True, there is a public right to know what happened, but there is also a greater public right to prosecute wrongdoers. That is a fundamental public policy as well. And given the fact that we have public trials in this country, there is no argument that the only way the information gets out is by doing it in the press. So, protecting the reporter's privilege as you've suggested would not serve any purpose not served elsewhere, and it would destroy one of the fundamental building blocks of a civil society -- the right to prosecute wrongdoers.


Some would say it enables sources to come forward with important information that would not otherwise be revealed.  In some cases, it would even be a whistleblower type information.  

Of course, a reporter's privilege could well be subject to abuse, as you suggest and there are indeed many avenues for finding out information.  So, I would expect an advocate of reporter's privilege to isolate just how important the privilege is to the ability of the press to report on important events that the public has a right to know and why that would outweigh the detrimental effects on law enforcement of respecting such a privilege.
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Hiersekorn

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« Reply #15 on: July 23, 2005, 05:17:33 PM »

Cimics,

I'm going to save a few virtual trees and skip the quoting.  I just have a couple of really hyper-technical comments.

First, I would agree with your analysis on the Sixth Amendment's proper application to the attorney-client privilege, but unfortunately, the Supreme Court disagrees with both of us.  If you recall, the big surprise in Miranda v. Arizona was that the Court ignored the Sixth Amendment and instead founded the entire case on the attorney's necessity in protecting the accused's Fifth Amendment right to remain silent.  

The Sixth Amendment, to my knowledge, has only been applied in the context of the accused's right to the advice and assistance of counsel.  I understand that the accused has to speak with an attorney in order to obtain that advice, but the question of whether the accused's words enter the courtroom, I believe, would always fall under the Fifth Amendment.

Finally, overbreadth is not necessarily special to the First Amendment.  It applies any time the state bans both protected and unprotected activity.  I would heartily agree that it most often comes up in the context of the First Amendment, but it could also apply to, for example, a law banning private ownership of "dangerous weapons."  (Which would presumably include nuclear bombs and revolvers.)  It is also the concept the Court is using (without explicitly naming it) when they strike an otherwise constitutional abortion ban when it doesn't make allowance for the health of the mother.  

Truthfully, though, I think the reason I object to your analysis is that it is seeking to expand the accepted understanding of the constitution.  That, to me, is the heart of judicial activism, and I would tend to reject it out of hand -- even if I find the underlying purpose somewhat useful.
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cimics

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« Reply #16 on: July 23, 2005, 10:48:59 PM »

Quote
The Sixth Amendment, to my knowledge, has only been applied in the context of the accused's right to the advice and assistance of counsel. I understand that the accused has to speak with an attorney in order to obtain that advice, but the question of whether the accused's words enter the courtroom, I believe, would always fall under the Fifth Amendment.


Not so.  There is Massiah, Moulton, and even Estelle (although that's both Fifth and Sixth).  The accused's words can be excluded under the Sixth, even if Miranda is complied with or not applicable, where the accused has been charged (usually indicted).  Massiah and Moulton involed undercover informants -- that are exempt from Miranda, but violated the Sixth because they interfered with the attorney client relationship.  Estelle presented both Miranda and Sixth Amendment violations due to questioning by a psychiatrist without warnings and after indictment.

But Miranda brings up another issue -- If the Supreme Court can recognize a "prophylactic" rule to secure the right against self-incrimination, it could use that reasoning to justify a "prophylactic" rule protect freedom of the press through confidential sourcing.  I don't think it'll do that primarily because I think the Supreme Court has no wish to extend Miranda's reasoning any further.  It won't get rid of Miranda, but it has limited that decision at almost every turn.   And of course, I'm sure some distinctions could be drawn between Miranda and a reporter's privilege.  Just noting there are some parallels.

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Finally, overbreadth is not necessarily special to the First Amendment.  It applies any time the state bans both protected and unprotected activity. I would heartily agree that it most often comes up in the context of the First Amendment, but it could also apply to, for example, a law banning private ownership of "dangerous weapons." (Which would presumably include nuclear bombs and revolvers.) It is also the concept the Court is using (without explicitly naming it) when they strike an otherwise constitutional abortion ban when it doesn't make allowance for the health of the mother.


But it's application in the First Amendment context is unique.  Standing rules are relaxed so that parties do not have to show that their own rights are violated, only that the offending statute would be impermissible as to someone's conduct.  Similarly, in the vagueness context, a First Amendment attack can be made even if the statute is only vague as to people not before the Court.  For any other constitutional claim, a vagueness challenge can succeed only if 1) it is vague as applied to the litigant, or 2) it is vague in all applications.  The First Amendment overbreadth doctrine allows vagueness claims where they would otherwise fail.

At least, that's how it's postured.  If you want to argue some Supreme Court decisions have sub silentio used First Amendment type reasoning in other contexts, I'd have to see the case, but I might not necessarily disagree with you.  But the reasoning is express in the First Amendment context, and it is not elsewhere.

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Truthfully, though, I think the reason I object to your analysis is that it is seeking to expand the accepted understanding of the constitution. That, to me, is the heart of judicial activism, and I would tend to reject it out of hand -- even if I find the underlying purpose somewhat useful.


As I said, I wasn't necessarily endorsing the reasoning but saying it was available.  Some conservatives are attempting to use it now, possibly because their ox is getting gored with regard to the events surrounding Plame.
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Hiersekorn

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« Reply #17 on: July 24, 2005, 02:07:41 PM »

Up front, this discussion is a lot like the proverbial "how many angels can dance on the head of a pin?"  Our disagreement is largely theoretical.  That said, I would still disagree...

Quote from: cimics
Not so.  There is Massiah, Moulton, and even Estelle (although that's both Fifth and Sixth).  The accused's words can be excluded under the Sixth, even if Miranda is complied with or not applicable, where the accused has been charged (usually indicted).  Massiah and Moulton involed undercover informants -- that are exempt from Miranda, but violated the Sixth because they interfered with the attorney client relationship.  Estelle presented both Miranda and Sixth Amendment violations due to questioning by a psychiatrist without warnings and after indictment.

The key point of Massiah, as explained by Moulton, was that an accused has a sixth amendment right to have the state deal only with his attorney, once the right to an attorney is invoked.  The fact that it involved statements made by the accused is more a function of the state's motives than the constitutional right at stake.  It would be a violation of Massiah and Moulton, for example, for the state to make a plea bargain offer to the accused, rather than to his attorney as required.  True, the remedy was exclusion of the statements, but that doesn't go to the heart of the violation.

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But Miranda brings up another issue -- If the Supreme Court can recognize a "prophylactic" rule to secure the right against self-incrimination, it could use that reasoning to justify a "prophylactic" rule protect freedom of the press through confidential sourcing.  I don't think it'll do that primarily because I think the Supreme Court has no wish to extend Miranda's reasoning any further.  It won't get rid of Miranda, but it has limited that decision at almost every turn.   And of course, I'm sure some distinctions could be drawn between Miranda and a reporter's privilege.  Just noting there are some parallels.

Your comments would be accurate until the 2000 Dickerson decision, where the Court decided Miranda was not a prophylactic safeguard, but was a constitutional right in its own regard.

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But it's application in the First Amendment context is unique.  Standing rules are relaxed so that parties do not have to show that their own rights are violated, only that the offending statute would be impermissible as to someone's conduct.  Similarly, in the vagueness context, a First Amendment attack can be made even if the statute is only vague as to people not before the Court.  For any other constitutional claim, a vagueness challenge can succeed only if 1) it is vague as applied to the litigant, or 2) it is vague in all applications.  The First Amendment overbreadth doctrine allows vagueness claims where they would otherwise fail.

I see where you are going.  But, to me, this is just inherent in the prior restraint doctrine.  It has to do with the "chilling effect" of such rules.  Relevant to the reporter issue, I think we have to ask ourselves whether it is good policy to chill the government's ability to prosecute crimes just to foster an otherwise duplicative policy of "getting the word out."

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As I said, I wasn't necessarily endorsing the reasoning but saying it was available.  Some conservatives are attempting to use it now, possibly because their ox is getting gored with regard to the events surrounding Plame.

Well, first, the liberals are really relying on widespread public ignorance in trying to fry Rove on this.  Bush promised to fire anyone who had "committed a crime," but the Democrats are misquoting him as saying he'd fire anyone "involved."  Secondly, there is quite obviously no crime involved here.  She wasn't covert at the time, hadn't been for more than five years, and Rove didn't name her with the intention of blowing her cover.

Wilson was publicly lying (Cheney didn't send him to Africa and he didn't make any written report, much less have the apocryphal report read by Cheney.) and Rove was simply trying to keep the media from going too far on a story founded in a lie.
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« Reply #18 on: July 24, 2005, 03:38:49 PM »

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Up front, this discussion is a lot like the proverbial "how many angels can dance on the head of a pin?" Our disagreement is largely theoretical.


My response was mainly to further the discussion with some ideas, not to defend the existence of a reporter's privilege, as I assumed there would be others who are actually interested in doing that.

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The key point of Massiah, as explained by Moulton, was that an accused has a sixth amendment right to have the state deal only with his attorney, once the right to an attorney is invoked.  The fact that it involved statements made by the accused is more a function of the state's motives than the constitutional right at stake. It would be a violation of Massiah and Moulton, for example, for the state to make a plea bargain offer to the accused, rather than to his attorney as required. True, the remedy was exclusion of the statements, but that doesn't go to the heart of the violation.


Moulton and Massiah show that the attorney-client relationship has constitutional significance.  Moulton specifically says that the Sixth Amendment right guarantees that the attorney is a "medium" between the defendant and the government.  For the attorney to be a "medium", there must be a privilege between the attorney and the defendant.  If an undercover government agent cannot elicit statements from a defendant, does it really make sense that the 6th Amendment would permit the government to, for example, surreptitiously record a conversation between the defendant and counsel? In Patterson v. Ill.  (footnote 3) the Supreme Court cited Moulton for the proposition that "Once an accused has a lawyer, a distinct set of constitutional safeguards aimed at preserving the sanctity of the attorney-client relationship takes effect."  If a state tried to abolish the attorney-client privilege outright, I think it would run into some problems from the federal judiciary.

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Your comments would be accurate until the 2000 Dickerson decision, where the Court decided Miranda was not a prophylactic safeguard, but was a constitutional right in its own regard.


Dickerson just reaffirmed the status quo with regard to Miranda after the 4th Circuit tried to eviscerate it.  Chavez v. Martinez, decided in 2003, says that the failure to give Miranda warnings is not itself a freestanding constitutional violation.  It's only the admission of unwarned statements in Court that gives rise to a constitutional violation.  Miranda's quirky status is still alive and well -- the "prophylactic" rule is a constitutional one (of limited dimensions) -- a due process safeguard for implementing the right against self incrimination.   That doesn't necessarily hurt a parallel reporter's privilege argument, since any "prophylactic" rule would have to be constitutional in nature or else 1) Congress could override it, and 2) it wouldn't apply to the States.

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I see where you are going. But, to me, this is just inherent in the prior restraint doctrine. It has to do with the "chilling effect" of such rules. Relevant to the reporter issue, I think we have to ask ourselves whether it is good policy to chill the government's ability to prosecute crimes just to foster an otherwise duplicative policy of "getting the word out."


But the chilling effect rationale doesn't just apply to prior restraint -- for example, NY Times vs Sullivan and the "actual malice" standard in civil libel cases.  Whether a reporter's privilege is necessary or even important to preventing a chilling effect is a question I would definitely expect an advocate of the privilege to demonstrate.

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Well, first, the liberals are really relying on widespread public ignorance.....


Regardless of the merits of the issue (which is the topic of another thread), it seems to have inspired support for  a reporter's privilege in some conservative circles:

http://www.oag.state.tx.us/oagnews/release.php?id=1017

http://www.cjog.net/yesterday_lugar_files_companion_rep.html
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